Bộ đề thi thử thpt quốc gia năm 2016 môn tiếng anh số 5

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SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC GIANG

ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1

TRƯỜNG THPT NGÔ SĨ LIÊN

Năm học 2015 - 2016

----------------

Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 12

Đề thi có 06 trang

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
(Không kể thời gian phát đề)
Mã đề thi 156

(Học sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm 64 câu vào phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và phần tự luận vào giấy thi.)
SECTION A (8 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. attracted

B. attended

C. confided

D. promised

Question 2. A. communication

B. culture

C. ceremony

D. Compliment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. attract

B. decide

C. precede

D. culture

Question 4. A. determine

B. tradition

C. sacrifice

D. terrific

Question 5. A. informality

B. socialise

C. mischievous

D. confidence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6. Thank you for your compliment _______ my achievements.
A. to

B. with

C. from

D. on

Question 7. I’m afraid a rise in salary is _______ just now.
A. out of sight

B. out of the question

C. out of control

D. out of date

Question 8. They laughed a lot last night. The film _______ have been very funny.
A. can

B. would

C. ought

D. must

Question 9. After the test papers _______ to the students in class tomorrow, the students _______ their
next assignment.
A. will return – will be given

B. will be returned – are given

C. are returning – are giving

D. are returned – will be given

Question 10. I have not found the book _______ our teacher advised us to read.
A. whom

B. which

C. who

D. when

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Question 11. If he had tried his best, he _______ accepted to that university.
A. would have

B. would have been

C. would be

D. will be

Question 12. He’d prefer _______ chicken soup rather than _______ eel soup.
A. to have – have

B. have – have

C. to have – having

D. having – to have

Question 13. Barbara is motivated to study _______ she knows that a good education can improve her
life.
A. although

B. so that

C. because

D. but

Question 14. My family is the base from which we can go into the world with _______.
A. confide

B. confidence

C. confident

D. confiding

Question 15. _______ signals such as waving, nodding or shaking of the head also have cultural
meanings.
A. Verbal

B. Non-verbal

C. Visual

D. Oral

Question 16. Air is _______ mainly of nitrogen and oxygen.
A. created

B. consisted

C. composed

D. included

Question 17. It is important to have someone you can confide _______.
A. from

B. to

C. in

D. with

Question 18. I admired the _______ cars at the car show.
A. expensive new German

B. new expensive German

C. German expensive new

D. new German expensive

Question 19. A quick look would reveal that France has _______ computers.
A. as many twice televisions as

B. twice more televisions than

C. twice as many televisions as

D. as twice many televisions as

Question 20. Your grades are coming down. You should try to _______ the other students in your class.
A. get out of

B. get along with

C. keep away from

D. keep up with

Question 21. Only when you become a parent _______ what true responsibility is.
A. you will understand B. will you understand C. you understand D. you can understand
Question 22. It is essential that every student _______ the exam before attending the course.
A. passes

B. passed

C. pass

Question 23. Mickey: “_______”
Minnie: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday”
A. That’s a beautiful dress you are wearing.

D. would pass

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B. When did you buy this beautiful dress?
C. Who gave you this beautiful dress?
D. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
Question 24. Teacher: “Tom, you’ve written a much better essay this time.”
Tom: “_______”
A. Writing? Why?

B. Thank you. It’s really encouraging.

C. You’re welcome.

D. What did you say? I’m so shy.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Many education courses require both oral and written presentations before degrees are
awarded.
A. prepared

B. spoken

C. excellent

D. understood

Question 26. Although he is recognized as one of the most brilliant scientists in his field, Professor
White cannot seem to make his ideas understood in class.
A. get his ideas down B. recall his ideas C. summarize his ideas

D. get his ideas across

Question 27. Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. variety

B. changes

C. conservation

D. number

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 28. I would be happy to go along with the idea.
A. to disagree with the idea

B. to agree with the idea

C. to support the idea

D. to approve with the idea

Question 29. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the
annual meeting in May.
A. politeness

B. rudeness

C. measurement

D. encouragement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 30. The number of students attending the seminar are smaller than registration numbers.
A

B

C

D

Question 31. Preceding by four nice children, the bride and the groom entered the wedding hall.
A

B

C

D

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Question 32. The examination will test your ability to understand spoken English, to read
A

B

non-technical language, and writing correctly.
C

D

Question 33. The better the weather is, the most crowded the beaches get.
A

B

C

D

Question 34. It’s about time you decide whether to enter university or get a job.
A

B

C

D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 35 to 44.
Speech is one of the most important (35)___ of communicating .It consists of far more than just making
noises. To talk and also (36)___ to by other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use
combinations of (37)____that everyone agrees to stand
would be impossible if everyone made

for a particular object or idea. Communication

up their own language. Learning a language properly is very

(38)___. The basic (39)____of English is not very large, and not only about 2,000 words are needed to
speak it quite (40)___. But the more idea you can (41)____ the more precise you can be about their
exact meaning. Words are the (42)____thing we use in communicating what we

want to say. The way

we (43)____the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and
(44)____ whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
Question 35. A. reason

B. tests

C. rules

D. ways

Question 36. A. be spoken

B. be examined

C. be understood

D. be talked

Question 37. A. systems

B. sounds

C. languages

D. talks

Question 38. A. easy

B. important

C. simple

D. expensive

Question 39. A. grammar

B. word

C. vocabulary

D. structure

Question 40. A. fluent

B. good

C. perfect

D. well

Question 41. A. need

B. grow

C. express

D. pass

Question 42. A. main

B. certain

C. full

D. most

Question 43. A. talk

B. say

C. pass

D. send

Question 44. A. show

B. ask

C. understand

D. Know

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.

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Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating
without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The
basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as,
for example, the dots and dashes of a

telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for

communication is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in
and of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently.
Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate
relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some cultures,

applauding in a theater

provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking
also communicate certain cultural messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage in
communication. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent
to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt. As a result, means of
communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods must be based upon speech.
To radio, television, and the telephone, one must add fax, paging systems, electronic mail, and the
Internet, and no one doubts but that there are more means of communication on the horizon.
Question 45. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Gestures

B. Signs and signals

C. Speech

D. Communication

Question 46. What does the author say about speech?
A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
B. It is the most advanced form of communication.
C. It is necessary for communication to occur.
D. It is the only true form of communication.
Question 47. According to the passage, what is a signal?
A. A form of communication that interrupts the environment.
B. The most difficult form of communication to describe.
C. A form of communication which may be used across long distances.
D. The form of communication most related to cultural perception.
Question 48. The phrase “impinge upon” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prohibit

B. intrude

C. vary

Question 49. The word “it” in paragraph refers to ________.

D. improve

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A. way

B. environment

C. function

D. signal

Question 50. The word “potential” in paragraph 1 could be replaced by _______.
A. advantage

B. possibility

C. organization

D. range

Question 51. The word “intricate” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______.
A. inefficient

B. complicated

C. historical

D. uncertain

Question 52. Applauding was cited as an example of _______.
A. a signal

B. a sign

C. a gesture

D. a symbol

Question 53. Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?
A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.
B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.
C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
D. Because people wanted new forms of communication.
Question 54. It may be concluded from this passage that_______.
A. only some cultures have signs, signals, and symbols
B. signs, signals, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication
C. symbols are very easy to define and interrupt
D. waving and handshaking are not related to culture
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many households,
despite the fact that many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256 people ages between 18
and 65, men said they contributed an average of 37% of the total housework, while the women
estimated their share to be nearly double that, at 70%. This ratio was not affected by whether the
woman was working or not.
When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labor, women with jobs felt that
housework should be shared equally between male and female partners. Women who did not work
outside the home were satisfied to perform 80% - the majority of the household work – if their
husbands did remainder. Research has shown that, if

levels increase beyond these percentages,

women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are unimportant.
After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload by 14 hours per week, but for
men the amount is just 90 minutes. So the division of labor becomes unbalanced, as a man’s share

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increases much less than the woman’s. It is the inequality and loss of respect, not the actual number of
hours, which leads to anxiety and depression. The research describes housework as thankless and
unfulfilling. Activities included in the study were cooking, cleaning, shopping, doing laundry, washing
up and childcare. Women who have jobs report that they feel overworked by these chores in addition to
their professional duties. In contrast, full-time homemakers frequently anticipate going back to work
when the children grow up. Distress for this group is caused by losing the teamwork in the marriage.
In cases where men perform most of the housework, results were similar. The men also became
depressed by the imbalance of labor. The research showed that the least distressed people are those who
have equal share, implying that men could perform significantly more chores and even benefit from
this. The research concludes “Everybody benefits from sharing the housework. Even for women
keeping house, a share division of labor is important. If you decide to stay at home to raise the children,
you don’t want to become the servant of the house”.
Question 55. The word remainder in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. what is done

B. what is fulfilled

C. what is left

D. what is share

Question 56. Although women think men should share the housework, those who don’t have paid job
agree to share ______ of the chores.
A. 14%

B. 37%

C. 70%

D. 80%

Question 57. After getting married, ______ .
A. women have a bigger house

B. men do more housework

C. men do less housework

D. women do twice as much housework

Question 58. Working women ______ .
A. want their partners to do an equal share

B. are anxious and depressed

C. do 80% of the household

D. would prefer not to have a job

Question 59. Women who do not have a job become depressed ______ .
A. if they have to do more than half of the housework
B. because they have no respect
C. when their husbands do not help them
D. if their husbands do 20% of the chores
Question 60. The word norm in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. changing thing

B. strange thing

C. usual thing

D. unequal thing

Question 61. According to the passage, a good relationship is the one in which ______ .

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A. men do more housework than women
B. women and men divide the housework equally
C. women do 80% of the housework
D. women do 14 hours of housework
Question 62. Objects of the survey were ______ .
A. people of a wide range of ages

B. married people

C. working people

D. unemployed people

Question 63. The word estimated in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. wanted

B. divided

C. hoped

D. guessed

Question 64. What is the most suitable heading for the passage?
A. Difficulties of working women

B. Unequal housework division

C. Reason for women to be distress

D. How to be happy couples

SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1. The play started as soon as we arrived at the theatre.
Hardly__________________________________________________________________
Question 2. The roses are so beautiful that everyone seeing them pays compliments.
They___________________________________________________________________
Question 3. We could see the view of the ocean only after the rain stopped.
Not until____________________________________________________________________
Question 4. It was wrong of you not to call the fire brigade at once.
You____________________________________________________________________
Question 5. “If I were in your shoes, I would try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the
experiment,” said the professor to his research student.
The professor advised______________________________________________________
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about some typical features of
Write your paragraph on your answer sheet.
----------- THE END ---------Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên thí sinh:.................................................... Số báo danh: ..........................

Vietnamese culture.

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ANSWER KEYS
Mã đề 156
1. D

11. B

21. B

31. A

41. C

51. B

61. B

2. C

12. A

22. C

32. D

42. A

52. D

62. A

3. D

13. C

23. A

33. C

43. B

53. B

63. D

4. C

14. B

24. B

34. B

44. A

54. B

64. B

5. A

15. B

25. B

35. D

45. D

55. C

6. D

16. C

26. D

36. C

46. B

56. D

7. B

17. C

27. A

37. B

47. A

57. B

8. D

18. A

28. A

38. B

48. B

58. A

9. D

19. C

29. A

39. C

49. D

59. C

10. B

20. D

30. C

40. D

50. B

60. C

SECTION B (2 points)
I. 0.1 x 5 = 0.5
Question 1. Hardly had we arrived at the theatre when the play started.
Question 2. They are such beautiful roses that everyone seeing them pays compliments.
Question 3. Not until the rain stopped could we see the view of the ocean.
Question 4. You should have called the fire brigade at once.
Question 5. The professor advised his research student to try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying
out the experiment.
II. 1.5
Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá:
1. Bố cục (0,40 điểm)


Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc



Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài



Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận
2. Phát triển ý (0,25 điểm)



Phát triển ý có trình tự logic



Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình
3. Sử dụng ngôn từ (0,30 điểm)



Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung

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Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong / thể loại



Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển
4. Nội dung (0,30 điểm)



Đủ thuyết phục người đọc



Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận



Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%
5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả (0,25 điểm)



Sử dụng đúng dấu câu



Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả
Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm / sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)
Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi



Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm / sai lệch ý sẽ bị
trừ 1% điểm bài viết)
Điểm phần trắc nghiệm: Mỗi câu đúng 1,125 điểm x64 câu= 8 điểm
Điểm phần viết:
Part I: Mỗi câu đúng 0,1 điểm x5 câu = 0,5 điểm
Part II: 1,5 điểm
Điểm cuối cùng: Lấy tổng điểm phần trắc nghiệm và phần viết.
----------- THE END ----------

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SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC GIANG

ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 2

TRƯỜNG THPT NGÔ SĨ LIÊN

Năm học 2015 - 2016
Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 12

Đề thi có 06 trang

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)

(Học sinh làm phần trắc nghiệm 64 câu vào phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm và

Mã đề thi 183

phần tự luận vào mặt sau của phiếu trả lời.)
SECTION A (8 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. Christmas

B. chemical

C. switch

D. character

Question 2: A. advertise

B. addition

C. advantage

D. adventure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. attendance

B. obedient

C. candidate

D. security

Question 4: A. contaminate

B. kindergarten

C. conventional

D. curriculum

Question 5: A. attend

B. visit

C. apply

D. appear

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: As a millionaire who liked to show off her wealth, Mrs. Smith paid __________we
asked.
A. four time much than

B. four time as many as

C. four times as much as

D. four times much as

Question 7: Her mother, __________ has been working for thirty years, is retiring next month.
A. that

B. whom

C. whose

D. who

Question 8: Without my parents' support, ___________my overseas study.
A. will not complete

B. did not complete

C. had not completed

D. would not have completed

Question 9: Maria: “I’m taking my end-of-term examination tomorrow.”
Sarah: “__________.”
A. Good time

B. Good chance

C. Good day

D. Good luck

Question 10: He was very lucky when he fell off the ladder. He _____ himself.
A. must have hurt

B. should have hurt

C. will have hurt

D. could have hurt

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Question 11: We are going to __________
A. have our house to be redecorated

B. have our house redecorated

C. get our house being redecorated

D. have our house be redecorated

Question 12: The last student ___________ was John.
A. for interviewed

B. who is interviewed

C. to be interviewed

D. whom was interviewed

Question 13: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye __________ with the
interviewers.
A. connection

B. link

C. touch

D. contact

Question 14: The man ______ at the blackboard is our teacher.
A. stands

B. stood

C. to stand

D. standing

Question 15: The theory of relativity __________ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist.
A. was developed

B. developed

C. is developed

D. develops

Question 16: It is __________ work of art that everyone wants to have a look at it.
A. such an unusual

B. such unusual a

C. a so unusual

D. so an unusual

Question 17: "Your parents must be proud of your result at school". - "_______"
A. I am glad you like it.

B. Sorry to hear that.

C. Thanks. It's certainly encouraging.

D. Of course

Question 18: The teacher, along with her students, __________ going to school at the moment.
A. is

B. are

C. was

D. were

Question 19: __________, I would give a party.
A. Should she come next month

B. If she come next month

C. She were to come next month

D. If she

came here

now

Question 20: She isn’t __________ well with the new manager.
A. going on

B. keeping on

C. taking on

D. getting on

Question 21: I suggest the room __________before Christmas.
A. be decorated

B. is decorated

C. were decorated

D. should decorate

Question 22: You should look up the meaning of the new in the dictionary _______ misuse it.
A. so as to

B. to

C. so as not to

D. so that

Question 23: They asked me a lot of questions, __________ I couldn’t answer.
A. most of which

B. of which most

C. most of that

D. of that most

Question 24: ___________ is to give strangers your address.
A. What must never you do

B. That must never you do

C. That you must never do

D. What you must never do

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I received housing benefit when I was unemployed.
A. out of practice

B. out of order

C. out of fashion

D. out of work

Question 26: GCSEs are not compulsory, but they are the most common qualifications taken by
14-16-year-old students.
A. fulfilled

B. required

C. specialized

D. applied

Question 27: Before the interview, you have to send a letter of application and your résumé to the
company.
A. curriculum vitae

B. reference

C. recommendation

D. photograph

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 28: Punctuality is imperative in your new job.
A. Being efficient

B. Being courteous

C. Being late

D. Being cheerful

Question 29: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about”
A. behaving nice

B. behaving cleverly

C. good behavior

D.

behaving

improperly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 30: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A

B

C

D

Question 31: I like the fresh air and green trees of the village which I spent my vacation last
A

B

C

D

year.
Question 32: I told him I'd prefer to walk, but he insisted to give me a lift.
A

B

C

D

Question 33: Full-time jobs for men are declining, while more women are finding part- and
A
full-time work. The result is declining social status for men so they lose their role as the sole
B
financial provider.

C

D

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Question 34: The General Certificate of Secondary Education (GCSE) is the name of a set of
A

B

English qualifications, generally taking by secondary school students at the age of 15-16 in
C

D

England.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 35 to 44.
You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant information
about yourself. Think about how you want to present your (35)____, experiences, education, work
style, skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the
statements you make. It is also a good idea to review your resume with a critical eye and (36) ____
areas that an employer might see as limitations or want further information. Think about how you
can answer difficult' questions (37) ____ and positively, while keeping each answer brief.
An interview gives the employer a (38)_____ to get to know you. While you do want to market
yourself to the employer, answer each question with an honest (39) _____.
Never say anything negative about past experiences, employers, or courses and professors.
Always think of something positive about an experience and talk about that. You should also be (40)
____. If you are genuinely interested (41) _____ the job, let the interviewer know that.
One of the best ways to show you are keen on a job is to demonstrate that you have researched
the organization prior to the interview. You can also (42) ____ interest by asking questions about the
job, the organization, and its services and products. The best way to impress an employer is to ask
questions that build upon your interview discussion. This shows you are interested and (43) ____
close attention to the interviewer. It is a good idea to prepare a few questions in advance, but an
insightful comment based on your conversation can make an even stronger statement. At the (44)
_____ of an interview, it is appropriate for you to ask when you may expect to hear; from the
employer.
Question 35: A. pressures

B. strengths

C. promotions

D. practices

Question 36: A. hide

B. identify

C. express

D. limit

Question 37: A. sharply

B. accurately

C. rightly

D. hardly

Question 38: A. chance

B. practice

C. change

D. way

Question 39: A. expression

B. response

C. ability

D. respect

Question 40: A. enthusiast

B. enthusiastic

C. enthusiasm

D. enthusiastically

Question 41: A. on

B. in

C. with

D. for

Question 42: A. conceal

B. show

C. cover

D. appear

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Question 43: A. spend

B. make

C. pay

D. choose

Question 44: A. finish

B. final

C. end

D. close

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which provides
information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are
the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during campaigns presidential
knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many “person on the street” interviews on local television
news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate
indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a
certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or
factory workers, depending on which area the news people select. Second, television interviews
tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others
who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative
sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of
questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it.
It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even
questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information
desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done
properly and the questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of
survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people
find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written
questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject’s
underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and
more consistent.
Question 45: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of polls in American political life
B. The principles of conducting surveys
C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys
D. The history of surveys in North America
Question 46: The word "they" in line 7 refers to______.

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A. interviews

B. North Americans

C. opinions

D. news shows

Question 47: According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews
is that they
A. are not based on a representative sampling

B. reflect political opinions

C. are not carefully worded

D. are used only on television

Question 48: The word "precise" in line 10 is closest in meaning to______.
A. planned

B. accurate

C. required

D. rational

Question 49: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective
survey?
A. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
B. A high number of respondents
C. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
D. Carefully worded questions
Question 50: The word "exercise" in line 12 is closest in meaning to______.
A. defend

B. utilize

C. consider

D. design

Question 51: The word "elicit" in line 15 is closest in meaning to______.
A. compose

B. rule out

C. predict

D. bring out

Question 52: It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become
frustrated with questionnaires is that______.
A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
B. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
C. questionnaires are often difficult to read
D. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
Question 53: According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is
that live interviews______.
A. are easier to interpret

B. minimize the influence of the researcher

C. cost less

D. can produce more information

Question 54: Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. Survey

B. Representative sampling

C. Response rate

D. Public opinion

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.

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Although most universities in the United States are on a semester system, which offers classes in
the fall and spring, some schools observe a quarter system comprised of fall, winter, spring, and
summer quarters. The academic year, September to June, is divided into three quarters of eleven
weeks each beginning in September, January, and March: the summer quarter, June to August, is
composed of shorter sessions of vary length.
There are several advantages and disadvantages to the quarter system. On the plus side, students
who wish to complete their degrees in less than the customary four years may take advantage of
the opportunity to study year round by enrolling in all four quarters. In addition, although most
students begin their programs in the fall quarter, they may enter at the beginning of any other
quarters. Finally, since the physical facilities are kept in operation year round, the resources are used
effectively to serve the greatest number of students. But there are several disadvantages as well.
Many faculty complain that eleven-week term is simply not enough for them to cover the material
required by most college coursed. Students also find it difficult to complete the assignments in such
a short period of time.
In order to combine the advantages of the quarter system with those of the semester system some
colleges and universities have instituted a three-term trimester system. In fourteen weeks, faculty
and students have more time to cover material and finish course requirements, but the additional
term provides options for admission during the year and accelerates the degree programs for those
students who wish to graduate early.
Question 55: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. The Quarter System

B. The Academic Year

C. Universities in the United States

D. The Semester System

Question 56: A semester system______.
A. gives students the opportunity to study year round
B. has two major sessions a year
C. Isn’t very popular in the United States
D. has eleven-week sessions
Question 57: How many terms are there in a quarter system?
A. Two regular terms and two summer terms

B. Four regular terms and one summer term

C. One regular term and four summer terms

D. Three regular terms and one summer term

Question 58: When is the academic year?
A. September to June

B. September to August

C. August to June

D. June to August

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Question 59: The word “ customary” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by______.
A. traditional

B. limited

C. length

D. agreeable

Question 60: When may students begin studying in a school that uses a quarter system?
A. at the beginning of the academic year

B. Summer semester only

C. at the beginning of any quarter

D. September

Question 61: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to______.
A. faculty

B. weeks

C. courses

D. material

Question 62: The word “instituted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______.
A. attempted

B. recommended

C. established

D. considered

Question 63: Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to trimesters?
A. They allow students to graduate early
B. They are long enough to cover the course material
C. they provide more options for admission
D. they last eleven weeks
Question 64: Where would this passage most probably be found?
A. In a American newspaper
B. In a general guide to colleges and universities in the United States
C. In a dictionary published in the United States
D. In a college catalog for a university in the United States
SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 65: Although he was very tired, he agreed to help me with my homework.
Tired as__________________________________________________________________
Question 66: The bus driver cannot be blamed for the accident in any way.
In no_____________________________________________________________________
Question 67: There is a rumour that the guy stole the car.
It is _______________________________________________________________________
Question 68: We didn’t go on holiday because we didn’t have enough money.
If we ______________________________________________________________________
Question 69: I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.
It came as_________________________________________________________________
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about your future job after leaving school .

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Write your paragraph on your answer sheet.
----------- THE END ---------Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên thí sinh:.................................................... Số báo danh: ..........................

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ANSWER KEYS
SECTION A (8 points)
Mã đề thi
Câu hỏi
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MĐ 183
C
A
C
B
B
C
D
D
D
D
B
C
D
D
A
A
C
A
D
D
A
C
A
D
D
B
A
C
D
D
C
C
C
C
B
B
B
A
B
B
B
B
C

MĐ 216
B
D
B
A
D
D
A
D
A
A
B
A
C
D
B
D
A
C
D
B
A
A
B
D
A
D
B
D
A
D
C
C
C
C
B
D
A
A
B
C
D
B
B

MĐ374
C
A
B
C
C
B
D
A
B
B
C
A
A
C
B
B
A
A
B
A
D
B
C
B
A
A
B
C
D
A
B
A
A
D
B
D
D
B
D
C
D
D
C

MĐ 429
D
A
C
B
D
A
C
A
C
D
D
B
A
A
B
A
D
B
B
C
A
A
D
D
B
A
B
D
C
D
C
C
C
C
D
A
C
A
B
A
B
B
A