Tuyển chọn 24 đề thi thử thptqg tiếng anh
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KHUNG MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA 2016
- MÔN TIẾNG ANH
KIẾN THỨC
NĂNG
LỰC/KỸ
NĂNG
LANGUAGE
FOCUS/
KTNN I:
NGỮ ÂM
Số câu: 5; Số
điểm:0.625
Tỉ lệ %: 6.25
LANGUAGE
FOCUS/
KTNN II:
NGỮ PHÁP
Số câu:4; Số
điểm: 0.5
Tỉ lệ %: 5
LANGUAGE
FOCUS/
KTNNIII: TỪ
VƯNG
Số câu:15; Số
điểm: 1.875
Tỉ lệ %: 18.75
LANGUAGE
IN USE I
SỬ DỤNG
NGÔN
NGỮ I
Số câu:10 ; Số
điểm: 1.25
Tỉ lệ %: 12.5
LANGUAGE
IN USE II
SỬ DỤNG
NGÔN
NGỮ II
Số câu:10; Số
điểm: 1.25
Tỉ lệ %: 12.5
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NHẬN BIẾT (35%)
THÔNG HIỂU (25%)
Nguyên âm và phụ âm
(MCQs)
Trọng âm của từ
(MCQs)
Số câu:2
Số điểm: 0.25
Số câu: 3
Số điểm: 0.375
Thì, thể, cách của động từ
(MCQs)
Ngoại lệ trong dùng động
từ
(MCQs)
Số câu: 2
Số điểm: 0.25
Số câu: 2
Số điểm: 0.25
Từ vựng trong Chương
trình GDPT
(MCQs)
Từ vựng trong Chương
trình GDPT
(MCQs)
Số câu: 10
Số điểm: 1.25
Số câu: 5
Số điểm: 0.625
Tìm lỗi sai ngữ pháp, từ
trong các cụm gạch chân
sẵn
(MCQs)
Tìm lỗi sai dùng ngữ, cấu
trúc trong các cụm gạch chân
sẵn
(MCQs)
Số câu: 6
Số điểm: 0.75
Số câu: 4
Số điểm: 0.5
Nhận biết từ đúng trong
ngữ cảnh;
Nhận biết cấu trúc đúng
trong ngữ cảnh
(Cloze with MCQs-Hoàn
thành đoạn văn với nhiều
lựa chọn)
Số câu: 6
Số điểm: 0.75
Sử dụng được từ vựng
đúng trong ngữ cảnh
Sử dụng được cấu trúc
đúng trong ngữ cảnh
(Cloze with MCQs-Hoàn
thành đoạn văn với nhiều
lựa chọn)
Số câu: 4
Số điểm: 0.5
VẬN DỤNG (40%)
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READING
Số câu:20; Số
điểm: 2.5
Tỉ lệ %: 25
WRITING 1
Bài đọc dài khoảng 230 đến
250 từ có nội dung thuộc
chủ đề trong Chương trình
GDPT
Loại hình câu hỏi:
Đọc tìm thông tin cụ thể và
chi tiết
(MCQs)
Số câu: 2
Số điểm:0.25
Bài đọc dài khoảng 230 đến
250 từ có nội dung thuộc
chủ đề trong Chương trình
GDPT
Loại hình câu hỏi:
Đọc tìm ý chính; đọc để
tổng hợp thông tin
(MCQs)
Số câu: 2
Số điểm: 0.25
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Số câu: 16
Số điểm: 2
Viết lại câu từ câu cho trước
có nội dung trong Chương
trình GDPT sao cho nghĩa
của câu viết lại không thay
đổi
(Sentence transformationViết lại câu)
Số câu: 5
Số điểm: 0.5
Số câu:5; Số
điểm: 0.5
Tỉ lệ %: 5
WRITING 2
Số câu:1; Số
điểm:1.5
Tỉ lệ %: 15
Tổng số cấu:
70
Tổng số điểm:
10
Bài đọc dài khoảng 230 đến
250 từ có nội dung thuộc
chủ đề trong Chương trình
GDPT
Loại hình câu hỏi:
Đọc suy luận
(MCQs)
Viết đoạn văn khoảng 140 từ
về một người em ngưỡng mộ
(140 words – Composition)
Số câu: 1
Số điểm: 1,5
Số câu: 28
Số điểm:3.5
Số câu: 20
Số điểm: 2.5
Số câu: 22
Số điểm: 4
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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 26
KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. lean
B. teammate
C. beacon
D. overhead
Question 2: A. studied
B. kissed
C. hoped
D. laughed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. require
B. consist
C. achieve
D. system
Question 4: A. intervention
B. necessary
C. intellectual
D. productivity
Question 5: A. intensity
B. accurate
C. erosion
D. miraculous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: Since the flood the number of homeless people __________ dramatically.
A. are increasing
B. had increased
C. increase
D. has increased
Question 7: Can you make yourself __________ in French?.
A. understood
B. understand
C. to understand
D. understanding
Question 8: Today many species of plant and animal are in ________ of extinction.
A. danger
B. endangered
C. endanger
D. dangerous
Question 9: At first she was trained to be _____scriptwriter, but later she worked as ______
secretary.
A. the / a
B. a / a
C. the / the
D. a / the
Question 10: “ Don’t look so worried!. You should take the leader’s comment with ________.”
A. a teaspoon of salt
B. a cup of salt
C. a dose of salt
D. a pinch of salt
Question 11: Three pounds of butter __________ in this recipe.
A. needs
B. need
C. are needed
D. is needed
Question 12: Our project was successful ________ its practicality.
A. in terms of
B. with a view to
C. regardless
D. on behalf of
Question 13: Of the two new students, one is friendly and _________.
A. the others are not
B. the other is not
C. another is unfriendly
D. other lacks friendliness
Question 14: There is one person to ________ I owe more than I can say..
A. whom
B. who
C. that
D. whose
Question 15: Mary is sixteen years old. She is _______ young to get married.
A. too
B. so
C. such
D. enough
Question 16: __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants
which make a balanced environment..
A. extinction
B. biodiversity
C. habitat
D. conservation
Question 17: - Kate: “ How lovely your cats are!”
- David: “ ____________”
A. Really? They are
B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so
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C. Can you say it again
D. I love them, too
Question 18: Peter was ejected after committing five personal _________ in water sport game
yesterday.
A. mistakes
B. faults
C. fouls
D. errors
Question 19: It’s essential that every student ________ all the lectures.
A. attends
B. attend
C. has attended
D. attended
Question 20: It’s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it.
A. mustn’t
B. needn’t
C. mightn’t
D. may not
Question 21: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to ________ their
houses.
A. do up
B. do in
C. do through
D. do over
Question 22: - Anne: “ Make yourself at home”
- John: “ ____________”
A. Thanks! Same to you
B. That’s very kind. Thank you
C. Not at all. Don’t mention it
D. Yes, Can I help you?
Question 23: He managed to keep his job_________the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. therefore
B. although
C. unless
D. despite
Question 24: It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver _________in the crash.
A. are injured
B. was injured
C. were injured
D. have been injured
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the fo llowing questions.
Question 25: We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication.
A. using gesture
B. using speech
C. using verbs
D.
using
facial
expressions
Question 26: You must answer the police’s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into
trouble.
A. in a harmful way
B. as trustingly as you can
C. with a negative attitude
D. exactly as you can
Question 27: It takes me 15 minutes to get ready.
A. to prepare
B. to wake up
C. to go
D. to get up
Question 28: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
A. hungry
B. rich
C. poor
D. full
Question 29: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.
A. every single day
B. every other day
C. every second day
D. every two days
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions .
Question 30: Men and women in the Peace Corps work with people in the developing countries to
help
A
B
them improving their living conditions.
C
D
Question 31: Although not widely sold, that book is considered to be best book on the subject.
A
B
C
D
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Question 32: Because his sickness he didn’t take part in the English competition held last Sunday.
A
B
C
D
Question 33: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
A
B
C
D
Question 34: Dreaming, like all other mental processes, it is a product of the brain and its activity.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (35) _____
human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (36) _____ on
consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to
stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (37) _____ resource we have by which all people can
survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (38) _____ built on or washed into the sea.
Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (39) _____. We
discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (40) _____
the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human
numbers and consumption are (41) _____ increasingly heavy demands on it.
The Earth's (42) _____ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy,
medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (43) _____ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we
are sensible in how we use the resources, they will (44) _____ indefinitely. But if we use them
wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
Question 35: A. Although B. Yet
C. Still
D. Despite
Question 36: A. continues B. repeats
C. follows
D. carries
Question 37: A. individual
B. alone
C. very
D. solitary
Question 38: A. neither
B. sooner
C. rather
D. either
Question 39: A. utterly
B. completely
C. quite
D. greatly
Question 40: A. result
B. reaction
C. development
D. product
Question 41: A. making B. doing
C. having
D. taking
Question 42: A. living
B. real
C. natural
D. genuine
Question 43: A. maintain B. stay
C. hold
D. keep
Question 44: A. remain
B. go
C. last
D. stand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the question s from 45 to 54.
The Planets of Jupiter
The largest of the giant gas planets, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 times greater than Earth’s,
contains more than twice the mass of all the other planets combined. It is thought to be a gaseous
and fluid planet without solid surfaces, Had it been somewhat more massive, Jupiter might have
attained internal temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear reactions, and it would
have flamed as a star in its own right. Jupiter and the other giant planets are of a low-density type
quite distinct from the terrestrial planets: they are composed predominantly of such substances as
hydrogen, helium, ammonia, and methane, unlike terrestrial planets. Much of Jupiter’s interior
might be in the form of liquid, metallic hydrogen, Normally, hydrogen is a gas, but under
pressures of millions of kilograms per square centimeter, which exist in the deep interior of Jupiter,
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the hydrogen atoms might lock together to form a liquid with the properties of a metal. Some
scientists believe that the innermost core of Jupiter might be rocky, or metallic like the core of
Earth.
Jupiter rotates very fast, once every 9.8 hours. As a result, its clouds, which are composed
largely of frozen and liquid ammonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright bands
that circle the planet at different speeds in different latitudes. Jupiter’s puzzling Great Red Spot
changes size as it hovers in the Southern Hemisphere. Scientists speculate it might be a gigantic
hurricane, which because of its large size (the Earth could easily fit inside it), lasts for hundreds of
years.
Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from the Sun. Perhaps this is primeval heat or
beat generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet. Another star like
characteristic of Jupiter is its sixteen natural satellites, which, like a miniature model of the Solar
System, decrease in density with distance from rocky moons close to Jupiter to icy moons farther
away. If Jupiter were about 70 times more massive, it would have become a star, Jupiter is the bestpreserved sample of the early solar nebula, and with its satellites, might contain the most
important clues about the origin of the Solar System.
Question 45: The word attained in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. attempted
B. changed
C. lost
D. reached
Question 46: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. nuclear reactions
B. giant planets
C. terrestrial
D. substances
Question 47: According to the passage, hydrogen can become a metallic-like liquid when it is
_____.
A. extremely hot
B. combined with helium
C. similar atmospheres
D. metallic cores
Question 48: According to the passage, some scientists believe Jupiter and Earth are similar in that
they both have _____.
A. solid surfaces
B. similar masses
C. similar atmospheres D. metallic cores
Question 49: The clouds surrounding Jupiter are mostly composed of _____.
A. ammonia
B. helium
C. hydrogen
D. methane
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the appearance of alternating bands circling
Jupiter is caused by _____.
A. the Great Red Spot
B. heat from the Sun
C. the planet’s fast rotation
D. Storms from the planet’s Southern
Hemisphere
Question 51: The author uses the word puzzling in paragraph 2 to suggest that the Great Red Spot
is _____.
A. the only spot of its kind
B. not well understood
C. among the largest of such spots
D. a problem for the planet’s continued
existence
Question 52: Paragraph 3 supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as the Sun.
B. Jupiter has a weaker gravitational force than the other planets.
C. Scientists believe that Jupiter was once a star.
D. Scientists might learn about the beginning of the Solar System by Studying Jupiter.
Question 53: Why does the author mention primeval heat in paragraph 3?
A. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the Sun
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B. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the other planets
C. To suggest a possible explanation for the number of satellites that Jupiter has
D. To suggest a possible source of the quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off
Question 54: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. If Jupiter had fewer satellites, it would be easier for scientists to study the planet itself.
B. If Jupiter had had more mass, it would have developed internal nuclear reactions.
C. If Jupiter had been smaller, it would have become a terrestrial planet.
D. if Jupiter were larger, it would give off much less heat.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the question s from 55 to 64 .
Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of
communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every
known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that
it attracts attention, as. For example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to
speech, the potential for communication is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words,
signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning
quickly and conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs
because of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some cultures,
applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such
as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major
disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly
adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long
distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are
only a few.
Question 55: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Gestures
B. Signs and signals
C. Speech
D. Communication
Question 56: What does the author say about speech?
A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
B. It is the most advanced form of communication.
C. It is necessary for communication to occur.
D. It is the only true form of communication.
Question 57: According to the passage, what is a signal?
A. A form of communication that interrupts the environment.
B. The most difficult form of communication to describe
C. A form of communication which may be used across long distances.
D. The form of communication most related to cultural perception.
Question 58: The phrase “ impinge upon” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
_______________.
A. prohibit
B. intrude
C. vary
D. improve
Question 59: The word “it” in paragraph refers to _______________.
A. way
B. environment
C. function
D. signal
Question 60: The word “ potential” in paragraph 1 could be replaced by ______________.
A. advanced
B. possibility
C. organization
D. signal
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Question 61: The word “intricate” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ________
A. inefficient
B. complicated
C. historical
D. uncertain
Question 62: Applauding was cited as an example of ______________.
A. a signal
B. a sign
C. a gesture
D. a symbol
Question 63: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?
A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.
B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.
C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
D. Because people wanted new forms of communication.
Question 64: It may be concluded from this passage that___________.
A. only some cultures have signs, signals, and symbols
B. signs, signals, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication
C. symbols are very easy to define and interrupt
D. waving and handshaking are not related to culture
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
Question 65: It started to rain as soon as I went out.
No sooner………………………………………………….……………………….
Question 66: No one in our class is taller than Peter.
Peter………………………………………………………………….……………..
Question 67: People think that he broke into the bank last night
He……………………………………….…………………………………………..
Question 68: You are in trouble now because you didn’t follow my advice
Had …………………………………………………………………………………
Question 69: “I’ll take you to the zoo next Sunday” his mother said
His mother promised …………..………………………………………………….
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph to describe a person you admire
...............................................................................................................................................................................
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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 27
KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 1: A. linked
B. declared
C. finished
D. developed
Question 2: A. thereupon
B. thrill
C. threesome
D. throne.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress.
Question 3: A. attract
B. decide
C. reject
D. beauty
Question 4: A. television
B. information
C. economic
D. engineer
Question 5: A. achievement
B. argument
C. confinement
D. involvement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: A few animals sometimes fool their enemies _______ to be dead.
A. have been appearing
B. to be appearing
C. to appear
D. by appearing
Question 7: On _______ he had won, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told
B. having told
C. being told
D. telling
Question 8: It has been raining ______ I got up.
A. when
B. since
C. until
D. as
Question 9: Let’s begin our discussion now, ______?
A. shall we
B. will we
C. don’t we
D. won’t we
Question 10: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ______ the most.
A. that influences farmers
B. farmers that is influences
C. why farmers influence it
D. it influences farmers
Question 11: It gets _______ to understand what the professor has explained.
A. the more difficult
B. difficult more and more
C. more difficult than
D. more and more difficult
Question 12: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were
destroyed, including two by Picasso.
A. worthless
B. priceless
C. valueless
D. worthy
Question 13: There’s somebody walking behind us. I think we are ______..
A. followed
B. being followed
C. following
D. being following
Question 14: _______, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Thanks to the difficult homework
B. Despite the homework was difficult
C. Difficult as the homework was
D. As though the homework was difficult
Question 15: Learning English isn't so difficult once you_______ .
A. get on it
B. get off it
C. get down to it
D. get down with it
Question 16: The Boeing 747 is twice ______ the Boeing 707.
A. bigger than
B. more bigger than
C. as big as
D. as bigger as
Question 17: I will stand here and wait for you ______ you come back.
A. because
B. though
C. so
D. until
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Question 18: I was doing my homework ______ the light went out.
A. after
B. before
C. while
D. when
nd
Question 19: The song has ______ been selected for the 22 Sea Games,Vietnam.
A. officially
B. office
C. official
D. officer
Question 20: John: “I’ve passed my final exam.”
Tom: “______”
A. That’s a good idea.
B. Good luck.
C. It’s nice of you to say so.
D. Congratulations!
Question 21: Kitchen appliances called blenders became ______ in the 1930s, when Stephen B.
Poplawski developed a machine that excelled at making his favorite drink.
A. establish
B. established
C. which establish
D. establishing
Question 22: It is necessary that children __________ of their old parents.
A. takes care
B. to take care
C. take care
D. took care
Question 23: ______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
A. Had you arrived
B. If you arrived
C. Were you arrived
D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 24: Chosen as the nation’s capital at the end of the American Civil War, ______ the city
of over a million people.
A.Washington DC is now
B. for Washington DC,
C.Washington DC,
D. now in Washington DC,
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that
is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings.
Question 25: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. taking off
B. setting up
C. growing well
D. closing down
Question 26: The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water .
A. imagination
B. bone
C. leash
D. image
Question 27: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on in his mind.
A. sometimes
B. always
C. hardly
D. never
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that
is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings.
Question 28: We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.
A. revealed
B. frequented
C. accessible
D. lively
Question 29: They protested about the inhumane treatment of the prisoners.
A. vicious
B. warmhearted
C. callous
D. coldblooded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
Question 30: My father asked me where had I gone the night before.
A
B
C
D
Question 31: The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
A
B
C
D
Question 32: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to
A
B
C
them.
D
Question 33: Lake Superior, that lies on the US Canadian border, is the largest lake in North
America.
A
B
C
D
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Question 34: Public health experts say that the money one spends avoiding illness is less than
the cost
A
B
C
of to treat sickness.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks 51 to 60.
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (35) _________in our cars and to heat our
building in winter.Farmers use petrochemicals to (36) _________ the soil rich. They use them to kill
insects (37) _________eat plants. These chemicals go (38) __________rivers and lakes and kill the
fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (39)
_________ air to other countries and other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and (40) __________ The land needs a rest so it will be
better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests (41)
_________ firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (42) _________ desert. Poor
people can’t save the environment for the (43) ___________
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all- humans.
The people and the nations of the world must work together to (44) ___________ the world’s
resources.
Question 35: A. it
B. them
C. that
D. those
Question 36: A. work
B. change
C. make
D. let
Question 37: A. what
B. who
C. whom
D. which
Question 38: A. out
B. for
C. at
D. into
Question 39: A. pollute
B. polluting
C. polluted
D. pollution
Question 40: A. over
B. again
C. repeatedly
D. repeating
Question 41: A. of
B. for
C. with
D. at
Question 42: A. gets
B. changes
C. turns
D. becomes
Question 43: A. future
B. time being
C. times
D. period
Question 44: A. recycle
B. preserve
C. keep
D. reuse
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create
the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves
created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the
surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms
despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more
distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the
outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be
obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun.
Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the
time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its
monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the
Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest
ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon,
and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring
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the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a
high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun,
Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and
Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the
difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
Question 45: What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
Question 46: The word "felt" is closest in meaning to
A. based
B. dropped
C. detected
D. explored
Question 47: The words "In reality" are closest in meaning to
A. surprisingly
B. actually
C. characteristically D. similarly
Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how
much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is
A. size
B. distance
C. temperature
D. density
Question 49: The word "correspondingly" is closest in meaning to
A. unpredictably
B. interestingly
C. similarly
D. unusually
Question 50: What is the cause of spring tides?
A. Seasonal changes in the weather
B. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
C. The Earth's movement around the Sun
D. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
Question 51: The word "configuration" is closest in meaning to
A. unit
B. center
C. surface
D. arrangement
Question 52: Neap tides occur when_____. A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational
attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
Question 53: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true
EXCEPT:
A. The time of high tide is later each day.
B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do.
C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon.
D. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides.
Question 54: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than
those caused by tides?
A. Lines 2-4
B. Lines 10-11
C. Lines 12-13
D. Lines 17-18
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55.
Watching for wildlife in the forest, we rarely see past the surface of things. Standing on the
ground floor, we scan the leafy rafters, entirely overlooking the living world in the soil beneath out
feet.
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The forest‘s basement is a secret world. As different from our own world as water is from air, the
soil seems quiet, even dead. But life bustles down below: a cubic inch of topsoil may contain
billions of creatures.
Predators and prey roam beneath as well as above the forest floor. Furthermore, those upstairs
and downstairs forest denizens live closely linked lives soil-dwelling bacteria and fungi break
down deal organic matter into molecules that above ground plants use for food. Those plants, as
well as animals, mature and die, leaving more organic matter to fuel the folks downstairs.
Like a well -insulated house, the soil protected its tenants from extreme temperatures, and from
rain and snow. It also provides a bulwark against predators that roam the surface world. But the
dense, protecting soil also limits mobility. Soil creatures must be specially equipped in order to
travel easily through their dark, constricting realm.
Earthworms and ants are the champion earth-movers, creating channels that allow air and water
to enter the soil. While
ants travel relatively far from their nests, earthworms work small areas, reprocessing vast amount
of soil into fertile “waste”. In a single year, as much as 36 tons of soil may pass through the
alimentary tracts of all the earthworms living in an acre of soil.
Question 55: The main topic of the passage is_______ .
A. life in the forest soil
B. the habitats of the forest animals
C. the life cycle of ants and worms
D. a description of a forest scene
Question 56: The word “ bustles” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. is very active
B. threatens
C. continues.
D. waits
Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the forest soil is_____ .
A. sparsely inhabited
B. devoid of life
C. unknown to man
D. densely
inhabited
Question 58: According to the passage, what is the main function of bacteria and fungi?
A. to build walls in the soil
B. to help aerate the soil
C. to kill mature plants
D. to provide food for plant life
Question 59: The word “bulwark” in the passage is closest in meaning to_______ .
A. tomb
B. radar
C. barrier
D. gateway
Question 60: According to the passage, the soil offers creatures who live underground protection
from all of the following EXCEPT__________.
A. bacteria and fungi
B. bad weather
C. extreme heat and cold
D. enemies
Question 61: The word "constricting” can be replaced with _______.
A. deep
B. heavy
C. damp
D. limiting
Question 62: According to the passage, it could be expected that ants __________.
A. are more mobile than earthworms
B. move more earth than earthworms
C. perform similar functions to fungi
D. live only above ground
Question 63: The word "reprocessing" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. transporting
B. converting
C. eliminating
D. arranging
Question 64: The author uses which analogy to discuss the soil of the forest?
A. A building
B. A vehicle
C. A laboratory
D. A tunnel
WRITING
Part I. Rewrite the following sentences in order to keep their original meanings.
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Question 65. Mary is pretty but Camry is prettier.
-> Camry is the ………………………………………..…………….………………..
Question 66. This is the best film I’ve ever seen.
-.> I’ve ……………………………………………………………..…………………
Question 67. My school has over 2,000 students.
-> There are …………………………………………………..……….……………
Question 68. People say that the plane of Germanwings crashed into the mountains.
-> It is ……………………………………………………………………..…………
Question 69. He tries to learn English well so as to find a good job.
-> He tries to learn English well with ………………………………………………
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the book you like most .
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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 28
KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the rest in each of the following questions:
Question 1: A. symbol
B. emergency
C. poverty
D. qualify
Question 2: A. appalled
B. dedicated
C. designed
D. injured
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of main
stress in each of the following questions:
Question 3: A. preferential
B. communicate
C. eliminate
D. accompany
Question 4: A. community
B. businessman
C. development
D. environment
Question 5: A. achieve
B. improve
C. enter
D. contain
Mark the correct option A, B,C or D to fill each of the following blanks :
Question 6: This is his fifth day on the tour . He ____ four countries.
A. already visited B. visited
C. has already visited
D. is visiting
Question 7: “I think the teacher should give us more exercises. – “_________ .”
A. That’s rubbish. B. Yes, let’s.
C. Ok.
D. That’s just what I
was thinking.
Question 8: There is fog at Heathrow; the plane, ____ , has been delayed.
A. otherwise
B. or
C. therefore
D. so
Question 9: The man you saw yesterday _____Mr. Brown, because he went to London on business
last week.
A. can’t have been B. mustn’t be
C. can’t be
D. mustn’t have been
Question 10: ____ , he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more
B. If he were studying to a greater degree
C. If he studied more
D. Had he studied more
Question 11: “Why don’t you go to the zoo?” – “____________ .”
A. That’s a good idea.
B. Because we don’t have enough money.
C. I couldn’t agree more.
D. Yes, I’d love to.
Question 12: ____ the bad weather, he could get to the airport in time.
A. Despite
B. Though
C. However
D. Although
Question 13: The fact is, doctor, I just cannot ____ this dreadful cough.
A. get down to
B. get rid of
C. get out of
D. get round to
Question 14: Jane is plain, but her sister is very ____.
A. complex
B. attractive
C. sympathetic
D. sophisticated
Question 15:______, Harry was the thirty – third President of the United States
A. He was born and raised in Missori
B. That he was born and raised in Missori
C. Because he was born and raised in Missouri
D. Born and raised in Missouri
Question 16: I like that photo very much. Could you make an _____ for me?
A. increase
B. enlargement
C. extension
D. expansion
Question 17:I ______ “ Chicken Soup for the Soul” but I haven’t finished it yet.
A. am reading
B. was reading
C. have been reading
D. read
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Question 18:You shouldn’t live ____ your means.
A. into
B. without
C. beyond
D. on
Question 19: From an early age, Wolfgang had a(n) ____ for music.
A. interest
B. passion
C. involvement
D. tendency
Question 20: Despite playing under strength, the village team _____ beat the rivals.
A. could
B. were able to
C. couldn’t
D. weren’t able to
Question 21: Living organisms contain more water_______ substance.
A. than do any other
B. does than any other
C. other than do they any D. than any other
Question 22: ______ bacteria in foods are killed, as they are during baking or stewing, decay is
slowed down.
A. What
B. The
C. If
D. So
Question 23: Industrialization has been responsible for ____ most radical of the environmental
changes caused by humans.
A. a
B. the
C. some of which D. which are the
Question 24: For the first time in 70 years, ______ aspirin's potential beyond reducing pain, fever
and inflammation.
A. researchers began to understand
B. researchers begin understanding
C. researcher's understanding of
D. researchers began their understanding
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to
the underline word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. changed his decision B. refused to change his decision C. felt sorry for us D. wanted to
continue
Question 26: Between you and me, so don’t tell anyone, I’m sure he’ll lose the election.
A. In conclusion
B. In fact
C.In truth
D. In confidence
Question 27: You ought to send two hours as a minimum in the fresh air every day.
A. at most
B. at all
C. at least
D. at ease
Question 28: Sharks are single – minded , and will usually ignore rescuers.
A. concentrate on only one purpose/aim …
B. are selfish C. are cruel D. attack suddenly
Question 29: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!
A. considerably
B. thoroughly
C. altogether
D. specificially
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined pared that needs
correction
Question 30:There will always be a job for Mike if he changehis mind.
A B
C
D
Question 31:Language is important factor in the accumulation of culture.
A
B
C
D
Question 32: That cats have nine lives have been believed for centuries
A
B
C
D
Question 33: Despite the appearance of the Mayan empire, there are still Mayans in the region that
A
B
C
D
they once inhabited
Question 34: After writing it , the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed
into the department
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A
B
C
secretary before the end of the month .
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.
About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural
resources . We (35)___ well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or
later, most of it is thrown away .A high (36)___ of our animal consumption is in the (37)____ of
packaging and this (38) ___ about seven percent by weight, of our domestic (39) ____ . Almost all of
it can be recycled, but very little of it is ,though the plastic recycling (40)___ is growing fast. The
plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific (41) ____ than coal
and one (42)____ of “recovery” strongly(43)____ by plastic manufactures is the (44)_____ of waste
plastic into a fuel .
Question 35: A. consign
B. import
C. remove
D. consume
Question 36: A. proportion
B. portion
C. amount
D. rate
Question 37: A. kind
B. type
C. form
D. way
Question 38: A. constitutes
B. carries
C. takes
D. makes
Question 39: A. refuse
B. goods
C. requirements
D. rubble
Question 40: A. plant
B. industry
C. factory
D. manufacture
Question 41: A. value
B. degree
C. effect
D. demand
Question 42: A. measure
B. mechanism
C. method
D. medium
Question 43: A. desired
B. favoured
C. argued
D. presented
Question 44: A. melting
B. change
C. conversion
D. replacement
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from number.
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the
crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare.
And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he
can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single
drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to
withstand its desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large
animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the
bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than
the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by
stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as
healthy as animals anywhere else in the word.
The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could
survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a
matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows
underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert
averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
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Question 45: The title for this passage could be _____ .
A. “Desert Plants”
B. “Life Underground”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”
D. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”
Question 46: The word “inexorable” in the passage mostly means _____ .
A. relentless
B. full
C. demanding
D. essential
Question 47: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as
_____ .
A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert B. water is an essential part of his existence
C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things D. very few large animals are
found in the desert
Question 48: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. water-loving animals
B. the coyote and the bobcat
C. moist-skinned animals
D. many large animals
Question 49: According to the passage, creatures in the desert _____.
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. live in an accommodating environment
C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 50: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals
EXCEPT _____.
A. they sleep during the day
B. they dig home underground
C. they are noisy and aggressive
D. they are watchful and quiet
Question 51: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means _____.
A. wild
B. cunning
C. unmanageable
D. unhealthy
Question 52: the word “Them” means
A. animals
B. people
C. water
D. minutes
Question 53: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means _____.
A. “places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young”
B. “holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in”
C. “structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept”
D. “places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found”
Question 54: We can infer from the passage that _____ .
A. living things adjust to their environment
B. water is the basis of desert life
C. desert life is colorful and diverse
D. healthy animals live longer lives
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of
wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C . Despite its antiquity,
certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre
structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the
number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single
structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north,
south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers
and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical
observations.
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Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines.
Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present
and future. . Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of
the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many
believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers
even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?
Question 55: What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foundation
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. The lines represent important events
D. A superior race of people built in
Question 56: Extraterrestrial beings are___.
A. very strong workers
B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology
D. living beings from other planets
Question 57: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
B. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
Question 58: The word feat in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ____.
A. accomplishment
B. Appendage
C. festivity
D. structure
Question 59: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architects’plan for the hidden passages
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place
throughout time
Question 60: In the second passage , the word ‘ prophesied’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. affiliated
B. precipitated
C. terminated
D. foretold
Question 61: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
B. Problems with the Construction of the Great
Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
Question 62: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies
B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement
D. knowledge of the earth’s surface
Question 63: Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory
B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh
D. as an engineering feat
Question 64: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A.it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops C. It was built by a super race D. It is very old
WRITING
Part I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that the same as the sentence printed
before it.
Question 65: It was your assistance that enabled us to get achievement.
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